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Question No. 1

Which of the following statements best describes the strategic importance of the network?

Answer: C

Question No. 2

Which three statements are true about Cisco distribution switches? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, B, D

Question No. 3

Which statement does not correctly describe the impact of business video applications to the network?

Answer: D

Question No. 4

Which two are good options for selling Cisco WAAS during a router refresh at branches? (Choose two.)

Answer: C, D

Question No. 5

Which of the following Cisco ISR G2 features provides support for cloud-based web security?

Answer: B

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Question No. 1

Which two actions are in adoption campaign? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, C

Question No. 2

Which type of KPI is of the most interest to Customer Success?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

Which two outcomes are the goals of the initial customer meeting to onboard the customer into customer success? (Choose two.)

Answer: B, D

Question No. 4

A customer informs their Customer Success Manager that they are not realizing the savings expected with their technology solution. The Customer Success Manager acknowledges the concern and takes ownership. Which action does the Customer Success Manager take first?

Answer: D

Question No. 5

A large university has deployed a new IT solution designed to improve the overall student and staff experience. Which approach to measure success is the best?

Answer: B

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Question No. 1

When Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switches are implemented in a stack configuration, which command is used to verify the role of each switch in the stack, and what are the two roles supported?

Answer: B

Question No. 2

What is ISE profiling?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

Which feature should you recommend if a customer has high-density wireless deployments and they want to monitor bandwidth consumption and manage network resource utilization?

Answer: D

Question No. 4

Which access categories are defined in the Wi-Fi Alliance Wireless Multimedia certification?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

Within Cisco ISE, which persona or node handles RADIUS requests and the Sponsor and Guest portals?

Answer: C

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Question No. 1

Which three statements about Courtesy Callback are true? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, D, G

Question No. 2

Which option initiates Test Other Side in the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution?

Answer: F

Question No. 3

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), Which is the last operation a supervisor need to perform in order to intercept the call?

Answer: D

Question No. 4

For the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Outbound option, which Cisco Unified Communications Manager feature can be used to disable ringback during transfer to agent for a scenario that involves SIP trunks?

Answer: B

Question No. 5

You deploy Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise on a Cisco UCS C-Series Server and Unified Contact Center Enterprise is split over WAN with a dedicated WAN circuit for United CCE private traffic. Which two statements about QoS are true? (Choose two.)

Answer: B, D

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DumpsSchool provides updated practice questions with authentic knowledge of Implementing and Maintaining Cisco Technologies Using IOS XR topics in its Cisco 644-906 dumps. These 644-906 dumps are best for candidates of Cisco IOS XR Specialist Certification to pass this exam and verify their skills.

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Question No. 1

Which of the following functions can be configured in the Administration Config mode? (Choose two)

Answer: C, E

Question No. 2

How would MPLS Label Distribution Protocol, Graceful Restart be configured on TenGigE 0/0/0/1?

Answer: D

Question No. 3

Where is the LPTS policer applied?

Answer: E

Question No. 4

What is the maximum long-term normal operating temperature of the Cisco CRS-1, ASR 9000 Series Routers, and XR 12000 Series Routers?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

What is the correct procedure to associate a VRF to a static route?

Answer: B

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DumpsSchool offers ScrumStudy SMC exam dumps that contain authentic knowledge to answer real exam questions of Scrum Master Certified (SMC) including unified communications, conferencing, customer care, and collaboration endpoints of ScrumStudy SMC exam dumps. With Dumpsschool ScrumStudy SMC exam dumps you will get everything that you need to learn, prepare and pass the challenging Scrum Master Certification exam.

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Question No. 1

All of the following statements about Risk Communications are true, EXCEPT:

Answer: B

Because stakeholders have an interest in the project, it is important to communicate with them regarding risks.

Information provided to stakeholders related to risk should include potential impact and the plans for

responding to each risk. This communication is on-going and should occur in parallel with the four sequential steps discussed thus far—risk identification, assessment, prioritization and mitigation. The Scrum Team may also discuss specific risks related to their Tasks with the Scrum Master during Daily Standup Meetings. The Product Owner is responsible for the prioritization of risks and for communicating the prioritized list to the Scrum Team. An important tool which can be used for communicating information related to risks is the Risk Burndown Chart.

http://blog.scrumstudy.com/risk-management-in-scrum/

Question No. 2

You are the Scrum Master on a project that is reconstructing the drinking water and sewage system of the city

of Bogot

Answer: B

Question No. 3

Which of the following methods helps estimate the value provided by projects?

Answer: A

The value to be provided by business projects can be estimated using various methods such as Return on Investment (ROI), Net Present Value (NPV) and Internal Rate of Return (IRR).

http://blog.scrumstudy.com/estimating-project-value-in-scrum/

Question No. 4

The Chief Scrum Master facilitates the Scrum of Scrums Meeting. Which of the following statements about a

Scrum of Scrums Meeting is true?

Answer: B

Question No. 5

One of the core principles of Scrum is Empirical Process Control. As a Scrum Master, which of the following statements would you recognize as the best description of the Empirical Process Control?

Answer: D

Transparency allows all facets of any Scrum process to be observed by anyone. This promotes an easy and transparent flow of information throughout the organization and creates an open work culture. In Scrum, transparency is depicted through:

1. Artifacts

i. Project Vision Statement

ii. Prioritized Product Backlog

iii. Release Planning Schedule

2. Meetings

i. Sprint Review Meetings

ii. Daily Standup Meetings

3. Information Radiators

i. Burndown Chart

ii. Scrumboard

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Question No. 1

Which service component in the design phase occurs after detailed design validation?

Answer: D

Question No. 2

In which service component of the plan phase would you address a customer`s operations and network management infrastructure?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

Which activity is part of the acceptance testing service component in the implement phase?

Answer: D

Question No. 4

In which service component of the optimize phase would you assess the routing and switching system and recommend activities such as optimizing device configurations, capacity planning, or traffic analysis?

Answer: B

Question No. 5

Which two of these activities are part of the phased implementation service component in the implement phase? (choose two)

Answer: C, D

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Question No. 1

What is a GID?

Answer: B

Question No. 2

Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to produce a binary output file?

Answer: B

Question No. 3

Which pre-processor uses a global directive and an engine instance directive in the snort.conf file for configuration to provide target context during packet reassembly?

Answer: B

Question No. 4

A Snort sensor is generating many false-positive sfPortscan alerts, in which busy, trusted hosts are flagged as the source of port sweep events. Which tuning strategy can mitigate this problem?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

To accept input from Snort and produce various forms of output, the Barnyard architecture consists of which components?

Answer: C

Question No. 6

Which information does the rule body contain?

Answer: D

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Question No. 1

Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)

Answer: A, B, C

Question No. 2

Which customer cost saver leverages current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoids lengthy customizations?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

Which issues are resolved with the Security Advantage programs? (Choose two)

Answer: A, C

Question No. 4

Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)

Answer: B, C, D

Question No. 5

Which customer use case is challenged by inconsistent protection, coverage gaps, and exposing businesses to unwanted security vulnerabilities?

Answer: D

Question No. 6

Which two attack vectors are protected by identity and access control? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, C

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Question No. 1

Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?

Answer: C

Question No. 2

Which command allows you to log in to a line card on a leaf switch?

Answer: E

Question No. 3

A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?

Answer: B

Question No. 4

Which messaging protocol is used by the vPC peers to communicate with each other?

Answer: D

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