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Messaging Administrator Associate MS-200 Exam Questions For Guaranteed Success

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Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code MS-200
Full Exam Name Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform
Certification Name Messaging Administrator Associate
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft MS-200 Exam Questions:

Version: 8.0
Question: 1

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations:
The forest functional level if Active Directory is Windows Server 2008 R2.
The domain controllers in Active Directory run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter.
You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the
upgrade.
What should you do?

A. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019.
B. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016.

Answer: B

Question: 2

You plan to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2019.
You need to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared for the deployment.
What are two methods to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared? Each correct
answer
presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Use ADSI Edit.
B. Run the Get-ExchangeServer cmdlet.
C. Review the Exchange.Setup log.
D. Run the Get-ADForest cmdlet.
E. Run the dcdiag.exe command.

Answer: AC

Question: 3

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has a database availability group (DAG).
The DAG contains the servers shown in the following table.
You install a new server named File02 that runs Windows Server 2019.
You attempt to add File02 as an alternate witness server, and you receive the following error
messages:
You need to ensure that you can configure File02 successfully as the alternate witness server.
What should you do on File02?

A. Create an inbound firewall rule
B. Add a member to the Administrators group.
C. Enable PowerShell remoting.
D. Create a shared folder.

Answer: B

Question: 4

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains four Mailbox servers and one
Edge Transport server. The organization supports hundreds of remote users.
You need to block offline access to Outlook on the web for all the users.
What should you do?

A. Run the Set-OWMailboxPolicy cmdlet and specify the
–ExplicitLogonEnabled $true parameter
B. Run the Set-OWMailboxPolicy cmdlet and specify the
–AllowOfflineOn NoComputers parameter
C. On the Edge Transport server, run the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet and specify the –
AllowOfflineOn NoComputers parameter.
D. On each Mailbox server, run the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet and specify the
–ExternalURLs $null parameter.

Answer: C

Question: 5

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named
litware.com and exchange.litware.com and a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
The relevant servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX01 and EX02 have Exchange Server 2019 installed and are in a database availability group (DAG)
named DAG01.
You need to add in additional server to DAG01.
Which server should you add?

A. Server01
B. Server02
C. Server03
D. Server04

Answer: D

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Vendor Exin
Exam Code SIAMF
Full Exam Name BCS Service Integration and Management
Certification Name EXIN BCS SIAM
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What is the challenge of a legacy contract not being fit for purpose?

A. aligning contractual requirements with the new SIAM model
B. balancing the level of control against expected benefits
C. the customer does not get what they expect
D. understanding the expected benefits and costs

Answer: A

Question: 2

What is an activity of the Run and Improve stage of the SIAM roadmap?

A. approve the full business case
B. introduce service providers
C. operate governance structures
D. understand the marketplace

Answer: C

Question: 3

What is a disadvantage of the hybrid service integrator structure?

A. The customer can inadvertently develop a long term dependency on the service integration
partner.
B. The customer can revert to an internally sourced solution if the service integration partner fails to
live up to expectations.
C. The high level of dependency on the service integrator adds risks to continuity.
D. The service integrator might be perceived to be biased, even if this is not the case.

Answer: C

Question: 4

What is an objective of the Discovery and Strategy stage of the SIAM roadmap?

A. complete the design of the SIAM model
B. establish the SIAM transition project
C. put in place and in use the new SIAM model
D. obtain full approval of the SIAM model

Answer: B

Question: 5

What is a benefit of adopting SIAM for an organization?

A. SIAM enables effective contracts between the service integrator and the service providers.
B. SIAM makes service providers accountable for the end-to-end delivery of services.
C. SIAM provides a single point of control for the integrated delivery of services.
D. SIAM provides service providers with a tool to support their internal processes.

Answer: C

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Actual MCSA: Windows Server 2016 70-740 Exam Questions

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Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code 70-740
Full Exam Name Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Certification Name MCSA: Windows Server 2016
Technology Windows Server

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Version: 23.0
Question: 1

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual
machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012. VM1 has the following configuration.
You discover that when you back up Server1, VM1 temporarily pauses.
You need to ensure that you can back up Server1 without causing downtime on VM1.
What should you do?

A. Increase the memory on VM1
B. Connect the hard disk drive of VM1 to an SCSI controller
C. Update the virtual machine version of VM1
D. Upgrade VM1 to Windows Server 2016
E. Enable the VSS integration service on VM1

Answer: E

Question: 2

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Windows Defender is enabled on
Server1.
Server1 runs an application named App1 that stores various types of files in Microsoft OneDrive for
Business, MicrosoftOneDrive, and Microsoft SharePoint Online. App1 also interacts with several local
services.
You need to prevent Windows Defender from scanning any files opened by App1.
What should you do on Server1?

A. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet.
B. Run the New-AppLockerPolicy cmdlet.
C. Modify the real-time protection settings in Windows Defender.
D. Run the Add-MpPreference cmdlet.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Hyper-V server
role and Docker installed.
You pull the Microsoft/iis Docker image to Server1.
You need to view the available space in the Microsoft/iis Docker image.
Solution: You run the command docker run –d Microsoft/iis.
You open Disk Management on Server1.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 4

You have a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that contains two nodes named Server1 and
Server2. The nodes run Windows Server 2016.
The NLB cluster has the following configuration.
You deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to both servers.
You need to configure NLB to load balance requests between the web servers. HTTP requests must
be stateless. HTTPS requests must be stateful.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Modify the Cluster operation mode.
B. Suspend the cluster.
C. Drainstop the cluster.
D. Add a new port rule.
E. Edit the existing port rule.

Answer: CD

Question: 5

You have four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named
VM1. Server2 hosts a virtual machine named VM2. Server3 hosts the disks and the configurations of
both virtual machines on an SMB share named VMShare.
You use Server4 to manage Hyper-V operations on Server1 and Server2.
From Server4, you attempt to perform a live migration of VM1 and VM2, but you receive the
following error message: “No credentials are available in the security package”.
You need to ensure that you can perform the live migration of VM1 and VM2 between Server1 and
Server2 while signed in to Server4.
What should you do?

A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of Server4. Configure the
delegation settings to trust the computer for delegation of cifs.
B. From Windows PowerShell on Server3, run the remove-SMBMultiChannelConstraint cmdlet, and
then assign Server4 Full Control permissions to VMShare.
C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of Server1 and Server2.
Configure the Delegation settings to trust the computers for delegation of the Microsoft Virtual
System Migration Service.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the properties of your user account. Modify
the Account is sensitive and cannot be delegated setting.

Answer: C

Question: 6

You have a server that runs Windows Server 2016 Standard.
You create a new three-way mirror storage space. You format the storage space by using ReFS.
Which two features can you use on the new storage space? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.

A. file and folder permissions
B. disk quotas
C. Encrypting File System (EFS)
D. long file names
E. Data Deduplication

Answer: A,E

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Messaging Administrator Associate MS-202 Exam Questions Are Out – Download And Prepare

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Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code MS-202
Full Exam Name Messaging Administrator Certification Transition
Certification Name Messaging Administrator Associate
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft MS-202 Exam Questions:

Version: 6.0
Question: 1

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations:
The forest functional level if Active Directory is Windows Server 2008 R2.
The domain controllers in Active Directory run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter.
You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the
upgrade.
What should you do?

A. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019.
B. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016.

Answer: B

Question: 2

You plan to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2019.
You need to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared for the deployment.
What are two methods to verify whether the Active Directory environment is prepared? Each correct
answer
presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Use ADSI Edit.
B. Run the Get-ExchangeServer cmdlet.
C. Review the Exchange.Setup log.
D. Run the Get-ADForest cmdlet.
E. Run the dcdiag.exe command.

Answer: AC

Question: 3

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has a database availability group
(DAG). The DAG contains the servers shown in the following table.
You install a new server named File02 that runs Windows Server 2019.
You attempt to add File02 as an alternate witness server, and you receive the following error
messages:
You need to ensure that you can configure File02 successfully as the alternate witness server.
What should you do on File02?

A. Create an inbound firewall rule
B. Add a member to the Administrators group.
C. Enable PowerShell remoting.
D. Create a shared folder.

Answer: B

Question: 4

You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains four Mailbox servers and one
Edge Transport server. The organization supports hundreds of remote users.
You need to block offline access to Outlook on the web for all the users.
What should you do?

A. Run the Set-OWMailboxPolicy cmdlet and specify the
–ExplicitLogonEnabled $true parameter
B. Run the Set-OWMailboxPolicy cmdlet and specify the
–AllowOfflineOn NoComputers parameter
C. On the Edge Transport server, run the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet and specify the –
AllowOfflineOn NoComputers parameter.
D. On each Mailbox server, run the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet and specify the
–ExternalURLs $null parameter.

Answer: C

Question: 5

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named litware.com
and exchange.litware.com and a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
The relevant servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX01 and EX02 have Exchange Server 2019 installed and are in a database availability group (DAG)
named DAG01.
You need to add in additional server to DAG01.
Which server should you add?

A. Server01
B. Server02
C. Server03
D. Server04

Answer: D

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Want to pass LPI Linux Essentials 010-160 Exam Dumps Immediately?

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Vendor LPI
Exam Code 010-160
Full Exam Name Linux Essentials Certificate, version 1.6
Certification Name LPI Linux Essentials
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What are the differences between hard disk drives and solid state disks? (Choose two correct
answers.)

A. Hard disks have a motor and moving parts, solid state disks do not.
B. Hard disks can fail due to physical damage, while solid state disks cannot fail.
C. Solid state disks can store many times as much data as hard disk drives.
D. /dev/sda is a hard disk device while /dev/ssda is a solid state disk.
E. Solid state disks provide faster access to stored data than hard disks.

Answer: AE

Question: 2

Reverse DNS assigns hostnames to IP addresses. How is the name of the IP address 198.51.100.165
stored on a DNS server?

A. In the A record for 165.100.51.198.ipv4.arpA.
B. In the PTR record for 165.100.51.198.in-addr.arpA.
C. In the RNAME record for 198-51-100-165.rev.arpA.
D. In the ARPA record for 165.100.51.198.rev.
E. In the REV record for arpA.in-addr.198.51.100.165.

Answer: B

Question: 3

Which of the following types of bus can connect hard disk drives with the motherboard?

A. The RAM bus
B. The NUMA bus
C. The CPU bus
D. The SATA bus
E. The Auto bus

Answer: D

Question: 4

Members of a team already have experience using Red Hat Enterprise Linux. For a small hobby
project, the team wants to set up a Linux server without paying for a subscription. Which of the
following Linux distributions allows the team members to apply as much of their Red Hat Enterprise
Linux knowledge as possible?

A. Ubuntu Linux LTS
B. Raspbian
C. Debian GNU/Linux
D. CentOS
E. openSUSE

Answer: D

Question: 5

What information can be displayed by top?

A. Existing files, ordered by their size.
B. Running processes, ordered by CPU or RAM consumption.
C. User accounts, ordered by the number of logins.
D. User groups, ordered by the number of members.
E. User accounts, ordered by the number of files.

Answer: B

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IBM Certified Specialist C1000-020 Exam Questions – Pass With Guarantee

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Vendor IBM
Exam Code C1000-020
Full Exam Name IBM New Workloads Sales V2
Certification Name IBM Certified Specialist
Technology

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Question: 1

How does IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management simplify copy data management?

A. By enabling automation and orchestration of snapshots
B. By creating daily backups on tape
C. By activating snapshot features in each storage system
D. By creating user-profiles to automate copy processes

Answer: A

Question: 2

An IBM SVC customer is migrating to use data reduction pools. They want to add data reduction capabilities to grow effective capacity and make existing storage more efficient.
What is required to add the capabilities and minimize TCO?

A. Compression licenses for the usable capacity being compressed
B. No further licensing required
C. IBM Spectrum Control
D. IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management

Answer: A

Question: 3

What is a key advantage of leasing storage equipment over buying storage equipment?

A. Leasing ensures business continuity for leased equipment.
B. Leasing is not on the client’s balance sheet.
C. Leasing improves the alignment of project cost with project benefits.
D. Leasing rates automatically reduce over time.

Answer: C

Question: 4

A customer is looking to add copy services to provide disaster recovery between sites with heterogeneous storage.
Which product should the sales specialist discuss with the customer?

A. IBM Spectrum Control
B. IBM Spectrum Archive
C. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
D. IBM Spectrum Accelerate

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which offering provides file sharing and transparent cloud tiering?

A. IBM Spectrum Virtualize
B. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
C. IBM Cloud Object Storage
D. IBM Spectrum Scale

Answer: D

Question: 6

A customer wants application consistent restore capabilities.
Which software should the sales specialist recommend to this customer?

A. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
B. IBM Spectrum Scale
C. IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management
D. IBM Spectrum Control

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which IBM solution provides simplified management for a heterogeneous block storage environment?

A. IBM Spectrum Accelerate
B. IBM Spectrum Copy Data Management
C. IBM Spectrum Protect Suite
D. IBM Virtual Storage Center

Answer: A

Question: 8

An IBM i customer is interested in an all-flash solution to help with performance and latency.
Which advantage does the IBM FlashSystem 900 have over other vendors’ flash solutions in this
environment?

A. Native IBM I support
B. HyperSwap
C. Support for VIOS
D. PowerHA support

Answer: B

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How To Pass Network Security Specialist FortiDDoS Exam Dumps In First Attempt?

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Vendor Fortinet
Exam Code FortiDDoS
Full Exam Name FortiDDoS 4.0 Specialist
Certification Name Network Security Specialist
Technology Configuring Monitoring

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Which is true regarding packets that match a do-not-track policy with the action Track and Allow?

A. Packets are never dropped.
B. Source IP addresses are added to the legitimate IP (LIP) table.
C. Packets are not included in the statistics for threshold estimation.
D. Packets are assigned to SPP 0.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Regarding the switching SPP feature, what is used to determine when FortiDDoS switches the traffic
to an alternate SPP?

A. Traffic volume
B. Destination IP addresses
C. Mitigated attacks
D. Blocked packets

Answer: A

Question: 3

A FortiDDoS device is connected between a protected server and an Internet router. For the
aggressive aging feature, the administrator must manually add the router internal interface MAC
address to the FortiDDoS configuration. Why does the FortiDDoS need this information?

A. To send RST packets to the protected server spoofing the router internal interface MAC address.
B. To allow incoming traffic only from that specific MAC address.
C. To determine which traffic direction is incoming and which traffic direction is outgoing.
D. To allow outgoing traffic only to that specific MAC address.

Answer: A

Question: 4

A FortiDDoS administrator wants the configured minimum threshold to act as a hard, fixed threshold.
So, FortiDDoS will start dropping packets and mitigating the traffic as soon as the traffic volume goes
above the configured minimum threshold, regardless of the values of the other thresholds. What
configuration change can be done to achieve this requirement?

A. Setting the SPP to detection mode.
B. Changing the adaptive mode to fixed.
C. Setting the adaptive limit percentage to 100%.
D. Disabling the adaptive limit threshold.

Answer: C

Question: 5

A FortiDDoS device must be deployed as soon as possible in a customer network that is currently
under a DDoS attack. Which values are recommended to use for the configured minimum
thresholds?

A. The factory default values.
B. The factory default values increased by a percentage that depends on the customer traffic volume.
C. The easy setup values.
D. The system recommended values after a one-hour learning period.

Answer: D

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Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code 70-761
Full Exam Name Querying Data with Transact-SQL
Certification Name Microsoft Certified Professional
Technology SQL Server

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Version: 9.0
Question: 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:
You have the following stored procedure:
You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:
– Insert product records as a single unit of work.
– Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.
– If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written
to the database.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:
You have the following stored procedure:
You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:
– Insert product records as a single unit of work.
– Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.
– If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written
to the database.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:
You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:
– Insert product records as a single unit of work.
– Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.
– If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written
to the database.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Question: 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:
You must insert the following data into the Customer table:
You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 5

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:
You must insert the following data into the Customer table:
You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

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Vendor Cisco
Exam Code 300-135
Full Exam Name Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Certification Name Cisco Certified Network Professional Routing and Switching
Technology Network Administration

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Version: 15.1
Question: 1

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both
Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the
network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble
ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2

Answer: G

Question: 2

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both
Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the
network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble
ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Access Vlans
D. Port Security
E. VLAN ACL / Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface

Answer: B

Question: 3

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both
Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the
network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble
ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

A. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13 command, then configure switchport
trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
B. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13, port-channel 23, then configure
switchport trunk none allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200
commands.
C. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23 command, then configure switchport
trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
D. In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23, port-channel, then configure
switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,200 commands.

Answer: B

Question: 4

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both
Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the
network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP
services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping
the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?

A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2

Answer: G

Question: 5

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both
Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the
network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP
services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping
the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to switch technology?

A. NTP
B. Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
C. Loop Prevention
D. Access Vlans
E. VLAN ACL Port ACL
F. Switch Virtual Interface
G. Port Security

Answer: D

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Vendor Cisco
Exam Code 210-260
Full Exam Name Implementing Cisco Network Security
Certification Name Cisco Certified Network Associate Security
Technology Network Security

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Version: 30.0
Question: 1

Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)

A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service

Answer: A, B

Question: 2

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)

A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond

Answer: A,B

Question: 3

In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)

A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.

Answer: A, B, C

Question: 4

According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access
port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose
three.)

A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x

Answer: A, B, C

Question: 5

Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)

A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384

Answer: A, F

Question: 6

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)

A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header

Answer: D, E, F

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