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Vendor Fortinet
Exam Code NSE8_810
Full Exam Name Fortinet Network Security Expert 8 Written Exam (810)
Certification Name Fortinet Network Security Expert
Technology Network Security

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Question: 1

What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?

A. Disconnect the client from the network
B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist
C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block
D. Force a new IP address to the client.

Answer: B

Question: 2

When generating a protection configuration from an auto learning report what critical step must you
do before generating the final protection configuration?

A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches
B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives.
C. Activate the report to create t profile
D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile

Answer: B

Question: 3

How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking
B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C. ADOMs only affect specific functions, and do not provide full separation like VDOMs do.
D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants

Answer: D

Question: 4

You are configuring FortiAnalyzer to store logs from FortiWeb.
Which is true?

A. FortiAnalyzer will store antivirus and DLP archives from FortiWeb.
B. You must enable ADOMs on FortiAnalyzer.
C. To store logs from FortiWeb 5.6.0, on FortiAnalyzer, you must select “FrotiWeb 5.4”.
D. FortiWeb will query FortiAnalyzer for reports, instead of generating them locally.

Answer: B

Question: 5

Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?

A. Page has been moved to a new URL
B. Page has been moved to a new IP address
C. Replace vulnerable functions.
D. Send connection to secure channel

Answer: A

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-933
Full Exam Name Oracle Cloud Platform Identity and Security Management 2018 Associate
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Cloud Platform

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Version: 7.0
Question: 1

From which Threat Intelligence providers does Oracle CASB Cloud Service receive Information?

A. Oracle CASB Cloud Service provides threat Intelligence from digital element/Tor/abuse.ch.
B. Oracle CASB Cloud Service provides threat intelligence from digital element/Open Threat
Exchange /MISP.
C. Oracle CASB Cloud Service provides threat intelligence from digital element/Open Threat
Exchange/Cymon.io.
D. Oracle CASB Cloud Service provides threat intelligence from digital element/MISP/Cymon.io.

Answer: D

Question: 2

Which two are the advantages of using Oracle Configuration and Compliance Cloud Service?

A. It provides insights with highest severity and frequency to prioritize remediation.
B. It scores only for benchmark assessments without attaching SLA to the rule-sets.
C. It only uses Security Technical Implementation Guides (STIGs) for out-of-the-box automation for
100% compliance of finance systems.
D. It scores the benchmark assessments and attaches SLAs to rule-sets, and also uses the STIG.

Answer: AC

Question: 3

How can you prevent a user from signing in to Oracle Identity Cloud Service if they are using a device
that Oracle Identity Cloud Service does NOT recognize?

A. Configure Adaptive Security
B. Configure identity provider policies
C. Configure Multi-Factor Authentication
D. Configure the bridge

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which industry-standard benchmark engine needs to be configured with Oracle Configuration and
Compliance Cloud Service?

A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
B. Secure Technical Implementation Guides (STIGs)
C. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)
D. Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

Answer: A

Question: 5

What does Oracle CASB Cloud Service Access Map within Dashboard Summary show?
I

A. suspicious activity and threats that have transpired within Oracle CASB and across different
geographical regions or the world
B. up to five Application Instances, including API calls showing the geographical regions where the
instance was first implemented
C. mobile devices users who are actively using Oracle Identity Cloud Services in a manner that is
against Oracle Corporate Usage Policy
D. a geography of login attempts within Oracle Identity Cloud Service and Oracle Enterprise
Resource Planning Cloud, specifically the successful logins

Answer: A

Question: 6

Which do you configure if you need to supplement the risk events that are automatically created
Oracle CASB Cloud Service?

A. Configure Notifications
B. Configure Incidents
C. Configure Custom Risk Events
D. Configure Custom Policy

Answer: C

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-986
Full Exam Name Oracle Inventory Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Oracle Inventory Cloud

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Version: 8.1
Question: 1

Identify the availability type that is applicable for the item quantities maintained in a unit of measure
different from the primary unit of measure and is available for various transactions.

A. On Hand
B. Secondary On-hand Quantity
C. available
D. Reserved
E. Secondary Available Quantity

Answer: C

Question: 2

You set up an Item organization and an inventory organization as part of your customor’s
requirement.
Your customer has, by mistake, performed a receipt transaction in the Item organization Instead of
the inventory organization. How will you rectify the error?

A. Perform a return of item and receive the item again in the correct organization.
B. Perform a correct receipt transaction and receive the item in the correct organization.
C. Perform a new receipt in the correct organization and retain the stock in Item organization
because it does not affect any other operation.
D. It is not possible to receive item in the item organization.

Answer: C

Question: 3

An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template.
Which transaction state denotes that an inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud
Inventory Management application?

A. Created
B. New
C. Validated
D. Deferred
E. Staged

Answer: C

Question: 4

Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countries. Their legal
requirements, Human Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for ledger are different for each
country. Your customer wants to maintain 10 different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?

A. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across
all divisions
B. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
D. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger

Answer: C

Question: 5

Your organization performs a restock via a transfer order between inventory organizations, using the
following parameters tor processing:
Transfer Type: In-transit transfer type
Receipt Routing: Standard
Transfer Order Required: Yes
During the process, the receiving organization wants to make a change to the transfer order line.
After which fulfillment stage will they no longer be able to change the transfer order?

A. Ship Confirm
B. Awaiting Receiving
C. Awaiting Fulfillment
D. Closed
E. Awaiting Billing

Answer: A

Question: 6

Your customer wants to transfer material from facility A to facility B. They are using the
interorganization transfer to perform the transaction in the system. Their requirement is “whenever
material is transferred from their facility A to facility B, facility B needs to pay 5% additional amount
to the current Item cost.”
Which task must be set up to accomplish this requirement?

A. Manage Cost Plus Pricing
B. Manage Interorganization Markup
C. Manage Cost Organization Relationships
D. Manage Transfer Pricing Rules
E. Manage Organization Relationships

Answer: B

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-978
Full Exam Name Oracle Customer Data Management Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Customer Networking Services

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Version: 6.0
Question: 1

Your customer manages account data in three legacy systems. They asked you to develop
survivorship rules in Oracle Customer Data Management that will pick one correct master record
based on the following conditions:
1. Pick the master record that has the DUNS number populated.
2. If more than one record has the DUNS number, pick one based on the highest Party ID.
Which option can be inserted at lines 2 and 5 to complete the iF-condition survivorship rule to fulfill
the requirement?
1. Pick DUNS number
2. (IF……….
3. master.DUNsNumberC isn’t null)
4 masterPartylD is the maximum of masterPartylD where 5. {………and master.DUNSNumberC isn’t
null)

A. master= HZ_ACCOUNT_FactType.AccountPartyVO
B. master= HZ_ORGANIZATlON_FactType.OrganizationPartyVO
C. master= HZ_ACCOUNT_Type.PartyVO
D. master= HZ_ORGANIZATION_FactType.AccountVO

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which two Enterprise Data Quality (EDQ) match identifiers can be selected while adding custom
attributes to configure a duplicate check for the customer?

A. eid1, eid2, eid3
B. uid1, uid2, uid3
C. cid1, cid2, cid3
D. pid1, pid2, pid3

Answer: AB

Question: 3

Which two types are available when registering a source system in Oracle Customer Data
Management?

A. Hub system
B. Customer system
C. Purchased system
D. Party system
E. Spoke system

Answer: CE

Question: 4

Which statement is correct about the configuration performed on Enterprise pages in Oracle Sales
Cloud?

A. It is applied only to Desktop User Interface pages.
B. It is also reflected on Oracle Sales Cloud Mobile pages.
C. It is also reflected on Simplified User Interface pages.
D. It is also reflected on Oracle Sales Cloud Outlook pages.

Answer: C

Question: 5

You run Batch Duplicate Resolution by using a File Import job. You have successfully enabled the
Survivorship feature and threshold.
Which three processes should be run after the successful import job?

A. Duplicate Identification Process
B. Synchronize Duplicate Resolution Request
C. Duplicate Resolution Request Process
D. Schedule Duplicate Resolution Request
E. Manage Duplicate Resolution Request

Answer: ADE

Question: 6

Which three Time Stamp formats can be used while importing Account?

A. yyyy.MMMMM.dd hh:mmZ
B. yyyy.MMMMM.dd GGG hh:mmZ
C. yyyy.MM.dd G ‘at’ HH:mm:ss z
D. yyMMddHHmmssZ
E. EEE, d MMM yyyy HH:mm:ss Z

Answer: ABD

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-983
Full Exam Name Oracle Financial Consolidation and Close Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Close Cloud Service

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Version: 6.0
Question: 1

Which two statements are correct with regard to Data Management locations?

A. A company with three instances of Oracle EBS R12 should only use one location to maintain proper
accounting controls.
B. Location security allows users to be provisioned in Shared Services for read or modify access to
each location.
C. Locations can share dimension member mappings by specifying a location as a parent location of
others.
D. The logic account group is required in order to effect running of calculations after the data load.
E. Locations must specify an import format, which may be used by other locations.
F. Data load rules can be shared across locations.

Answer: CE

Question: 2

When a Financial Consolidation and Close (FCCS) application was created, no intercompany options
were enabled.
Which statement is true?

A. The FCCS_No Intercompany member of the ICP dimension will be used for all data.
B. Data can be stored by intercompany partner but no eliminations will occur.
C. An extra custom dimension will be available.
D. The ICP dimension will be omitted.

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which three key requirements does the Financial Consolidation and Close Cloud Service (FCCS)
deliver to ensure a modern consolidation and close solution?

A. Ensure security of sensitive data.
B. Integrate with source systems.
C. Provide predictive analysis and modeling.
D. Provide a strong compliance framework that includes auditing and segregation of duties.

Answer: BCD

Question: 4

Company 123 is a public company that reports in US Dollars. Company 123 owns Company XYZ, a
European company that consolidates in Euro. One of Company XYZ’s subsidiaries is Company IOU,
headquartered in Switzerland with a functional currency of the Swiss Franc.
Which process produces USD balances for Company IOU?

A. A translation to the USD_Reporting currency member for Company IOU
B. A translation of Company IOU
C. A consolidation of Company 123
D. A consolidation of Company XYZ
E. A translation of Company XYZ to Parent Currency

Answer: A

Question: 5

What member of the Currency dimension is associated with the Entity Input member of the
Consolidation dimension?

A. Base Currency
B. Parent Currency
C. Local Currency
D. Entity Currency

Answer: B

Question: 6

Which statement is correct regarding intercompany eliminations?

A. Intercompany eliminations are generally required to remove the effect of transactions within the
company.
B. Intercompany eliminations are required for sustainability reporting to show the company’s waste
output.
C. Intercompany eliminations are optional in FCCS and use one of the custom dimensions when
enabled.
D. Intercompany eliminations are needed when a company divests itself of a division.

Answer: D

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-980
Full Exam Name Oracle Knowledge Management Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Cloud Services Management

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Which two statements are true about exporting report data? (Choose two.)

A. It can be exported as a Word doc.
B. It can be exported only as an .xlsx Excel file.
C. It can be exported in XML format.
D. It can be exported to a character-delimited file.
E. It can be exported in PDF format.
F. It can be exported using only absolute HTML layouts.

Answer: C,D

Question: 2

Which two statements are true about replacement tokens? (Choose two.)

A. They enable re-use of existing content of any data type in variables.
B. They enable management of standardized content from a single resource.
C. They enable creation and storage of complex content consisting of integrated text and images
multiple times.
D. They enable re-use of content in a standardized form.

Answer: B,D

Question: 3

What is the purpose of an SLA in Knowledge base?

A. to group and refine related answers based on the product and the service level
B. to provide access to the answers based on the customer service level agreement matching the
answers’ access level
C. to give permission to users to add questions in a forum based on the service level
D. to rank customers based on the number of answers posted in a forum based on the service level

Answer: B

Question: 4

After how many categories will you see a search box that you can use to locate a subset of the
categories in Knowledge Advanced?

A. 1000
B. 100
C. 50
D. 500

Answer: B

Question: 5

You have created a new answer article for your customer but when you are trying to see that answer
article on the Customer’s Portal you find that it is not appearing.
Which two issues might be causing the problem? (Choose two.)

A. There is no answer content added to the answer article.
B. There is no display position defined for the answer article.
C. The answer status is not set to public or custom status of status type “public”.
D. The answer article is not assigned to any staff member/staff agent.
E. There is no search term added in the answer keyword list.
F. The answer is not assigned to any product/category that is visible to a customer.

Answer: C,F

Question: 6

You are working on a public answer that you want to add a part of information within the answer
that is not yet approved for public visibility.
How will you do this without impacting the knowledgebase answer?

A. Add a conditional section within the answer with any access level.
B. Create a different answer with the part of information that needs to be updated, and after review
merge it with the current answer.
C. Create an access level that has no customer portal visibility and assign it to the conditional section
you do not want customers to view.
D. Make the answer status private, make the required changes, and republish it.

Answer: C

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-973
Full Exam Name Oracle Benefits Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Benefits Management

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Version: 6.0
Question: 1

Which is NOT a valid type of life event?

A. Explicit
B. Temporal
C. Scheduled
D. Unrestricted
E. Restricted

Answer: E

Question: 2

XX Life insurance plan has two options: Option 1 enrolls a dependent of age 21 or above and Option
2 enrolls a dependent aged 18 or less.
How do you define a benefit configuration for these two options?

A. Create two derived factors, one with age as 21 or above and a second with age 18 or less. Create
an eligibility profile and configure these two derived factors under the eligibility profile. Then attach
the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance Plan
B. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the derived factor under the
eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance plan at Option 1, and then
attach the same eligibility profile at Option 2.
C. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the derived factor under the
eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX Life Insurance Plan.
D. Create two eligibility profiles. One with age as 21 or above and a second with age 18 or less. Then
attach these eligibility profiles to XX Life Insurance Plan.

Answer: D

Question: 3

An organization has a scheduled open period for Life Insurance plan from January 1st to the 31st. The
important dates defined while configuring the scheduled open life event are:
1) Enrollment Period Start Date – January 1, 201/
2) Enrollment Period End Date – January 31, 2017
3) Assign Defaults Date – January 31, 2017
4) Assigned Life Event Date – January 15, 2017
5) Coverage Start Date – Latest of elections, event or notified
The batch process to assign the open life event was run effective December 28, 2016. An employee
makes an election on January 22, 2017.
What is the coverage start date for this employee?

A. January 15, 2017
B. December 28, 2016
C. January 31, 2017
D. January 22, 2017

Answer: C

Question: 4

What are the number of train stops available in the Benefits Enrollment self-service page for
plan/program enrollment?

A. 5
B. 7
C. The number of train stops can be configured.
D. 6

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which is NOT a derived factor type?

A. Hours Worked
B. Full-Time Equivalent
C. Compensation
D. Grade

Answer: D

Question: 6

The reinstatement rule enables you to restore elections during which two events?

A. The open event was backed out by the administrator from the Benefits Service Center.
B. The intervening life event activated the open event.
C. An intervening life event backed out the open event.
D. The open event was accidentally backed out.

Answer: CD

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Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-992
Full Exam Name Oracle Planning Central Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name Oracle Cloud
Technology Oracle Supply Chain Planning Cloud

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Version: 6.0
Question: 1

The structure of the Plan Summary Layout is a predefined________

A. Material Plan view
B. Set of Exceptions
C. Supply Demand Workbench
D. Set of infotiles
E. Group of Reports

Answer: D

Question: 2

Your client wants to utilize product categories on sourcing rules. They have created a new category
for this and populated the items for it.
Where do they set up the category planning uses when evaluating sourcing rules?

A. Manage Planning Profile Options
B. Manage Plans
C. Manage Sourcing Rules
D. Manage Assignment sets
E. Manage Planning Source Systems

Answer: D

Question: 3

You have executed Planning, Data Collection and want to confirm that data has successfully been
collected. Identify the three data combination Ions that can be viewed using the Maintain Supply
Network Model Page.

A. Customer Location and Carriers
B. Safety Stock and Subinventories
C. Sales Channel and Demand Class
D. Calendar and Master Organization
E. Supplier Site and Service Level

Answer: ADE

Question: 4

Your Procurement Department is getting ready to set up Approved Supplier Lists that will be needed
for Supply Planning. They ask you for what you need on the ASLs for planning usage. Which three
options are key for planning?

A. Make sure to include Maximum Order Quantities.
B. Make sure to include Minimum Order Quantities,
C. Make sure to include Fixed Lot Multipliers.
D. Make sure to include Fixed Order Quantities.
E. Make sure they are at a Global level.
F. Make sure all Local level ASLs include an Organization.

Answer: BCF

Question: 5

Which option outlines changes you can make to a Simula-tion plan when evaluating demand and
supply?

A. Change Item specification values, change Item lead times, create mass changes for items
B. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add supply, cancel supply, reschedule
supplies
C. Change item specification values, change Item lead times, change item-organization specification
values
D. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add new planned orders, reschedule
supplies
E. Change item Specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items all at
once, change Item-organization specification values

Answer: D

Question: 6

You have created several Infotiles based on the client requirements, You now want to group them
together for display. How do you accomplish this?

A. First build them into a info set in Manage Infosets. Then open the info set on the plan by going to
Open (choose area) > Choose info set.
B. No need to group them. Open them directly on the plan going to Open (choose area) > Choose
Infotile.
C. First build them into a tile set in Manage Table, Graphs, and Analysis Sets. Then open the tile set
on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose tile set.
D. First build them into a planning group in Manage Planning Groups. Then open the planning group
on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose planning group.
E. First build them into a planning measure in Manage Planning Measures. Then open the planning
measure on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose planning measure.

Answer: C

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Vendor IBM
Exam Code C2070-994
Full Exam Name IBM Datacap V9.0 Solution Designer
Certification Name IBM Certified Solution Designer
Technology IBM Solution Value

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Question: 1

How is Rulerunner scaled vertically?

A. Add a load balancer to spread the load between Rulerunner servers.
B. Add additional Rulerunner servers to match volume throughput needs.
C. Increase the number of threads without additional servers or hardware.
D. Deploy the Datacap.xml and application files to each of the client
servers.

Answer: C

Question: 2

An administrator wants to configure threads in their IBM Datacap
environment.
Which tool will they use?

A. Application Manager
B. Rulerunner Manager
C. Maintenance Manager
D. Datacap Configuration Manager

Answer: B

Question: 3

A company wants to export documents to a repository that does not
have a specific action library in IBM Datacap, such as P8, CM8, IS,
Database, Sharepoint or text file.
What other alternative might they be able to use?

A. Install the repository on the Datacap server directly.
B. Use the CMISClient action library if the repository supports CMIS.
C. Use the GenericExport action library to export to any type of repository.
D. None. Exporting can only be done to the specific repositories provided.

Answer: B

Question: 4

An administrator must configure security on the Loan application so that
Loan_Processors can delete batches and run the verify task.
Which option best describes how the administrator will accomplish this?

A. Datacap implements privileges and permissions through external
directory service providers. The administrator will use the directory service
admin tool to configure delete and enable verify.
B. Datacap implements authentication and authorization using TMA. The
administrator will use Datacap Navigator or the web client to configure the
delete permission and enable the verify privilege.
C. Datacap implements authentication and authorization through external
directory service providers. The administrator will use the directory service
admin tool to configure delete and enable verify.
D. Datacap implements privileges and permissions to determine the
actions users and groups can take and the job tasks they can run. The
administrator will use an appropriate admin tool to set the delete privilege
and enable the verify permission.

Answer: D

Question: 5

A solution designer needs to setup a Datacap Report Viewer website to

provide information to business managers.
Which of the following platforms is the Datacap Report Viewer website
compatible with?

A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. IBM WebSphere Application Server
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server
D. WildFly (formerly known as JBoss AS)

Answer: C

Question: 6

A business implementing IBM Datacap Navigator wants to remotely scan

its hard copy pages. They are in the initial state of adding and configuring
all the scanners on their system to accomplish this.
When scanning with Datacap Navigator, ActiveX is supported for TWAIN
scanning with which browser type?

A. Apple Safari
B. Mozilla Firefox
C. Google Chrome
D. Internet Explorer

Answer: D

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Vendor NetApp
Exam Code NS0-513
Full Exam Name NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer (Data Protection)
Certification Name NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer-Data Protection
Technology

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Version: 5.1
Question: 1

A client decided to transition from a NetApp Storage Encryption environment that uses a KMIP-based
centralized key management server to a NetApp Volume Encryption environment that uses onboard
key management.
Which two steps are required to complete this task?
(Choose two.)
Response:

A. You must set the manufacturer secure ID (MSID) on each encrypted disk to 0x0.
B. Cluster-wide FIPS compliance mode must be enabled on all nodes in the cluster.
C. You must use the volume-move command to un-encrypt the storage system’s encrypted volumes.
D. All connections to the external key manager server must be disconnected.

Answer: AD

Question: 2

A client has a 2 TB volume and has enabled the function to automatically delete Snapshot copies in
scenarios where capacity will be exceeded. They have set the trigger for this action to the volume |
snap_reserve value.
In this scenario, what would trigger this function?
Response:

A. The volume reaches 95%.
B. The volume reaches 95% and the space_reserve is at capacity.
C. The snap_reserve reaches capacity.
D. The volume reaches 98% and the snap_reserve is at capacity.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Click the Exhibit button.
cluster2::>snapmirror show –instance
Source Path: svm1:svm1_vol3
Destination Path: svm1_2:svm1_2_vol2
Relationship Type: DP
Relationship Group Type: none
SnapMirror Schedule: 5min
SnapMirror Policy Type: async-mirror
SnapMirror Policy: DPDefault
Tries Limit: –
Throttle (KB/sec): unlimited
Mirror State: Snapmirrored
Relationship Status: Idle
Last Transfer Type: update
Last Transfer Error: –
Last Transfer Size: 72 KB
Last Transfer Network Compression Ratio: 1:1
Last Transfer Duration: 0:0:2
Last Transfer From: svm1:svm1_vol3
Last Transfer End Timestamp: 09/24 13:10:04
Progress Last Updated: –
Relationship Capability: 8.2 and above
Lag Time: 0:0:55
Number of Successful Updates: 1
Number of Failed Updates: 0
Number of Successful Resyncs: 0
Number of Failed Resyncs: 0
Number of Successful Breaks: 0
Number of Failed Breaks: 0
Total Transfer Bytes: 212992
Total Transfer Time in Seconds: 5
You want to view your SnapMirros relationship to make sure it is up to date. You issue the snapmirror
show –instance command. Referring to the exhibit, how long has it been since the last SnapMirror
update has successfully occurred?
Response:

A. 55 minutes
B. 55 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 5 seconds

Answer: B

Question: 4

Click the Exhibit button on the right.
You have an AFF A300 controller with four volumes in the aggregate that is shown in the exhibit. You
replicate all four volumes to one aggregate on a FAS8200 controller in a different cluster.
Referring to the exhibit, what are the storage efficiency savings on the destination FAS8200?
Response:

A. 1.5:1
B. 2:1
C. 4.28:1
D. 5.78:1

Answer: D

Question: 5

A company wants to implement a hybrid cloud backup model for their file services. They want to
configure an incremental forever backup that can then push to a public or private cloud.
Which products satisfy this requirement?
Response:

A. FlashPool with AltaVault and OnCommand Cloud Manager
B. SnapMirror with SnapCenter Software and AltaVault
C. ONTAP with FlexGroup and OnCommand Unified Manager
D. System Manager with Cloud Sync and NetApp Volume Encryption

Answer: B

Question: 6

You must determine if there have been any backup problems overnight. Which two reports in
OnCommand Unified Manager 6.2 would provide you with the required information?
(Choose two.)
Response:

A. Unresolved Incidents and Risks area
B. On Command Unified Manager Dashboard
C. On Command Cluster Events Details
D. On Command Job Events Details

Answer: BD

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