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Cisco 642-887 Exam Dumps Study Guide

Capabilities to configure, implement, troubleshoot, and optimize service provider IP next-generation network infrastructures are measured in the CCNP Service Provider Certification. Cisco 642-887 exam questions assist you to get certified.

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Question No. 1

When implementing MPLS DS-TE on Cisco IOS XR routers, all aggregate Cisco MPLS TE traffic is mapped to which class type by default?

Answer: A

Differentiated Services Traffic Engineering

MPLS Differentiated Services (Diff-Serv) Aware Traffic Engineering (DS-TE) is an extension of the regular

MPLS-TE feature. Regular traffic engineering does not provide bandwidth guarantees to different traffic classes. A single bandwidth constraint is used in regular TE that is shared by all traffic. To support various classes of service (CoS), users can configure multiple bandwidth constraints. These bandwidth constraints can be treated differently based on the requirement for the traffic class using that constraint.

MPLS diff-serv traffic engineering provides the ability to configure multiple bandwidth constraints on an MPLSenabled interface. Available bandwidths from all configured bandwidth constraints are advertised using IGP.

TE tunnel is configured with bandwidth value and class-type requirements. Path calculation and admission control take the bandwidth and class-type into consideration. RSVP is used to signal the TE tunnel with bandwidth and class-type requirements.

Diff-Serv TE can be deployed with either Russian Doll Model (RDM) or Maximum Allocation Model (MAM) for bandwidth calculations.

Question No. 2

The Cisco IOS and IOS XE qos pre-classify command allows which kind of packet classification on IP packets that are encapsulated with GRE and IPsec?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

An engineer deployed a Cisco MPLS TE next-hop protection over a switched environment. While testing the link protection, an excessive IGP delay in the reconvergence time is seen. Which action fixes this issue?

Answer: B

Question No. 4

Which option is a Cisco-recommended congestion management or queuing method for real-time traffic for voice and video?

Answer: D

Question No. 5

Which three statements are correct regarding a Cisco MPLS TE? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, D, E

Question No. 6

What is a crucial LDP default operating behavior?

Answer: C

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Cisco 400-251 Exam Preparation Study Guide

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Question No. 1

Which statement about x.509 certificates is true?

Answer: F

Question No. 2

Which are the three remediation types that cannot be configured in stealth mode posture? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, C, D

Question No. 3

A customer has configured ISE to assign a Downloadable Access-list as a result of cusses full 802.1x authentication. When they check the switcher after a successful authentication, they do not see the DACL applied. They also notice that ISE logs do not contain the Framed-IP-Address value from the RADIUS exchange. What is the most likely fix?

Answer: B

Question No. 4

Which statement about the wireless security technologies is true?

Answer: B

Question No. 5

You are inspecting Cisco Email security Appliance (ESA) mail_logs, and find the following log lines:

Which two of the following statements are true (Choose two .)

Answer: B, D

Question No. 6

Which two statements about the Cisco FireAMP solution are true? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, C

Question No. 7

Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? {Choose three.)

Answer: B, E, F

Question No. 8

What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?

Answer: C

Question No. 9

Which IPS deployment mode can blacklist traffic?

Answer: C

Question No. 10

Which statement is an advantage of network segmentation?

Answer: D

Question No. 11

What are three technologies that can be used to trace the source of an attack in a network environment

with multiple exit/entry points? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, D, E

Question No. 12

In to enable the Certificate Authority (CA) server feature using Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol {SCEP} on an IOS device, which three of the following configuration steps are required1? (Choose three)

Answer: B, D, E

Question No. 13

Transmission control protocol, src port: 649999(64999), Dst Port:49086(49086),Seq:2,Ack:2,Len:

Refer to the exhibit.

Answer: D

Question No. 14

Which two statements about role-based access control are true? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, D

Question No. 15

Refer to the exhibit.

output?

Answer: C

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Question No. 1

What are two analysis method of file inspection on Network-based Cisco Advanced Malware Protection? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, D

Question No. 2

Which option represents the cisco event aggregation product?

Answer: C

Question No. 3

Which command is used on the cisco firepower threat defense to send logs to cisco tac?

Answer: B

Question No. 4

An engineer is used the reporting feature on a WSA. Which option must they consider about the reporting capabilities?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

What are 2 types or forms of suppression on a FirePower policy (or FTD)?

Answer: A, C

vent Suppression

Specified events notifications can be suppressed on the basis of source/ destination IP address or per Rule.

Note: When you add event suppression for a rule. The signature inspection works as normally but the system does not generate the events if traffic matches the signature. If you specify a specific Source/Destination then events do not appear only for the specific source/destination for this rule. If you choose to suppress the complete rule then the system does not generate any event for this rule.

Steps to configure Event Threshold:

Step 1. Select the Rule(s) for which you want to configure Event Threshold.

Step 2. Click Event Filtering.

Step 3. Click Suppression.

Step 4.Select Suppression Type from the drop down list. (Rule or Source or Destination).

Step 5. Click OK to complete.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-firepower-services/200451-Configure-Intrusion-Policy-and-Signature.html

Question No. 6

Which four advanced endpoint assessment statements are correct? (Choose four.)

Answer: A, B, C, F

Question No. 7

Which three access control actions permit traffic to pass through the device when using Cisco FirePOWER? (Choose three.)

Answer: B, C, D

Question No. 8

In WSA , which two pieces of information are required to implement transparent user identification using Context Directory Agent? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, E

Question No. 9

What is the function of the Web Proxy Auto-Discovery protocol?

Answer: A

Question No. 10

Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA?

Answer: B

Question No. 11

An enginner manages a Cisco Intrusion Prevention System via IME. A new user must be able to tune

signatures, but must not be able to create new users. Which role for the new user is correct?

Answer: C

Question No. 12

Instructions

What action will the sensor take regarding IP addresses listed as known bad hosts in the Cisco SensorBase network?

Answer: D

This can be seen on the Globabl Correlation — Inspection/Reputation tab show below:

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Question No. 1

Which command displays the NBMA IP addresses when DMVPN is configured with tunnel protection?

Answer: B

Question No. 2

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and wants to choose an authentication protocol that is reliable supports ACK and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

Which statement about CRL configuration is correct?

Answer: C

ASA SSLVPN deployment guide:

The security appliance supports various authentication methods: RSA one-time passwords, Radius,

Kerberos, LDAP, NT Domain, TACACS, Local/Internal, digital certificates, and a combination of both authentication and certificates.

Question No. 4

An engineer is configuring SSL VPN to provide access to a corporate network for remote users.

Traffic destined to the enterprise IP range should go over the tunnel and all other traffic should go directly to the internet.

Which feature should be configured?

Answer: C

Question No. 5

You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

Answer: D

Question No. 6

A company has decided to migrate an existing IKEv1 VPN tunnel to IKEv2. Which two are valid configuration constructs on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, E

Question No. 7

Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring FlexVPN on a router. The tunnel fails to come up. Which type of

mismatch is the root cause of the failure?

Answer: C

Question No. 8

What is the name of the transform set being used on the ISR?

Answer: B

Question No. 9

Which two NHRP functions are specific to DMVPN Phase 3 implementation? (Choose two.)

Answer: D, E

Question No. 10

Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.)

Answer: B, C, D

Question No. 11

An engineer is troubleshooting DMVPN and wants to check if traffic flows in only one direction. Which command accomplishes this task?

Answer: A

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Question No. 1

Which client interface or interfaces are provisioned when the Cisco ISE performs supplicant provisioning?

Answer: A

Question No. 2

Which option is the correct format of username in MAB authentication?

Answer: C

Question No. 3

You have a VPN client that is quarantined. Which action do you take to restart the posture session?

Answer: A

Question No. 4

You configured wired 802.1X with EAP-TLS on Windows machines. The ISE authentication detail report shows “EAP-TLS failed SSL/TLS handshake because of an unknown CA in the client certificates chain.” What is the most likely cause of this error?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

Which three statements about the Cisco wireless IPS solution are true? (Choose three.)

Answer: B, C, D

Question No. 6

How does the device sensor send information to a RADIUS server?

Answer: D

Question No. 7

What type of identity group is the Blacklist identity group?

Answer: A

Question No. 8

How long are sessions kept in the ISE Monitoring and Troubleshooting node If there is authentication but no accounting?

Answer: C

Question No. 9

Which feature enables the Cisco ISE DHCP profiling capabilities to determine and enforce authorization policies on mobile devices?

Answer: A

Question No. 10

Which characteristic of an SGT enforcement policy is true?

Answer: B

Unlike ACLs with an implicit deny at the end, Security Group ACLs (SGACLs) implemented on a switching platform have an implicit permit to Unknown or an implicit permit to all. This policy is not enforced on the Cisco ASA firewall or the Cisco IOS zone-based firewall acting as an SGFW, where an implicit deny is still maintained. On a switch, if no specific tag value is assigned to a server, the destination is considered Unknown and the packet is forwarded by default

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/branch-segmentation.pdf

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Question No. 1

Which type of endpoints support the DSCP for Video Calls parameter in Cisco Unified CM?

Answer: B

Question No. 2

Which three tests can you perform to verify redundancy in the customer environment? (Choose three.)

Answer: A, B, E

Question No. 3

Which code snippet is required for SAF to be initialized?

Answer: C

Question No. 4

Which parameter prevents the Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server from responding to endpoint gatekeeper discovery requests?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

Which two configurable options are available to enable Early Offer for calls over a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, B

Question No. 6

Which Cisco Unified Mobility setting enables or disables an incoming call to ring the desk phone and the

remote destination at the same time?

Answer: D

Question No. 7

When you use the RTMT Query wizard to configure the trace and log central (TLC) feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?

Answer: A

Question No. 8

A video endpoint is configured with SIP only. What does a video endpoint use to register with the VCS Control?

Answer: B

Question No. 9

Which component of Cisco Unified Communications Manager is responsible for sending keepalive messages to the Service Advertisement Framework forwarder?

Answer: C

Question No. 10

Which two results occur in SRST mode if the pickup commands is configured under the call manager fallback section of a router?

Answer: B, E

Question No. 11

Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?

Answer: B

Question No. 12

An engineer wants to change a dialed URI into another forma, in Cisco VCS. Which location does the engineer navigate to accomplish this task?

Answer: A

Question No. 13

When a call is made from a video endpoint to a Cisco TelePresence EX90 that is registered to a Cisco VCS Control, which portion of the destination URI is the is the first match that is attempted?

Answer: B

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Question No. 1

An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur?

Answer: A

Question No. 2

Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?

Answer: D

Question No. 3

Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)

Answer: C, D, F

Question No. 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a Cisco TelePresence Conductor with Cisco TelePresence Server version 4.0. The engineer wants to enable segment switching, to allow multiscreen endpoints to show only the screen that contains the loudest speaker pf another multiscreen system. Which menu option should the engineer use, to enable this feature?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

A user presses the envelope button on a 7945 IP phone, but it only launches audio voicemail. Where should the voice systems administrator troubleshoot?

Answer: C

Question No. 6

On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone

between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?

Answer: D

Question No. 7

Where can an engineer set the maximum message length in Cisco Unity Connection?

Answer: B

Question No. 8

When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?

Answer: A

Question No. 9

What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?

Answer: B

Question No. 10

Which two configuration options are used to populate users in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

(Choose two.)

Answer: C, D

Question No. 11

How to enable existing remote jabber to register to cucm without VPN?

Answer: C

Question No. 12

An engineer has updated the company dial plan and wants to get rid of unassigned numbers. Which action

must be taken in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to accomplish this task?

Answer: B

CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91_chapter_0101111.pdf

Question No. 13

An engineer wants to ensure that Cisco Jabber clients can communicate with instant messaging clients who are not registered to the same Jabber cluster. Which technology meets this requirement?

Answer: B

Question No. 14

Which type of signaling does desktop control mode use to control a desk phone?

Answer: A

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Question No. 1

Which feature can protect a Layer 2 port from spoofed IP addresses?

Answer: D

Question No. 2

When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to take effect?

Answer: A

Question No. 3

An engineer is configuring EtherChannel between two switches using PAgP. If the EtherChannel mode on

switch 1 is configured using auto, which mode on switch 2 establishes an operational EtherChannel?

Answer: A

Question No. 4

Which statement about the default behavior of a Cisco switch MAC address table is true?

Answer: D

Question No. 5

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol is an IEEE Standard?

Answer: C

Question No. 6

It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?

Answer: A

Question No. 7

Which command creates a login authentication method named “login” that will primarily use RADIUS and fail over to the local user database?

Answer: B

Question No. 8

Which two tasks must you perform to enable AAA operations with a remote security database? (Choose two)

Answer: B, E

Question No. 9

What happens spoofed packet or something like untrusted packet is detected? (Choose three)

Answer: A, C, E

Question No. 10

A physical switch port is part of an EtherChannel group. What happens while the same port is configured as a SPAN destination?

Answer: A

Question No. 11

Which two commands displays IP Source Guard bindings? (Choose two)

Answer: B, E

Question No. 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statement can be derived from the output of the show standby command? (Choose two.)

Answer: D, E

Question No. 13

What happens if an interface within channel group is configure as SPAN destination?

Answer: B

Question No. 14

When a Layer 2 trunking EtherChannel is configured, which two attributes must match across the member ports? (Choose two)

Answer: B, C

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Question No. 1

What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)

Answer: B, D

IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) for which split horizon must be explicitly disabled.

Certain protocols such as AppleTalk, transparent bridging, and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) cannot be supported on partially meshed networks because they require split horizon to be enabled (a packet received on an interface cannot be transmitted over the same interface, even if the packet is received and transmitted on different virtual circuits).

Configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces ensures that a single physical interface is treated as multiple virtual interfaces. This capability allows you to overcome split horizon rules so packets received on one virtual interface can be forwarded to another virtual interface, even if they are configured on the same physical interface.

Question No. 2

Which of the port is not part of STP protocol?

Answer: D

Question No. 3

Which command do you enter to verify that a VLAN has been removed from a trunk?

Answer: A

Question No. 4

Which port type is used in a stacked deployment?

Answer: A

Question No. 5

Which type of VPN allows for one endpoint to be learned dynamically during tunnel negotiation?

Answer: A

Question No. 6

A router has been configured to provide the nine users on the branch office LAN with Internet access, as

shown in the diagram. It is found that some of the users on the LAN cannot reach the Internet.

Based on the topology and router output shown, which command should be issued on the router to correct the

problem?

Answer: D

Question No. 7

SIMULATION

Lab Simulation Question: 300

CCNA.com has a small network that is using EIGRP as its IGP. All routers should be running an EIGRP AS

number 12. Router MGT is also running static routing to the ISP.

CCNA.com has recently adding the ENG router. Currently, the ENG router does not have connectivity to the

ISP router. All other interconnectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working

properly.

The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration(s) to provide full connectivity between

the routers.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords on all routers are cisco.

IP addresses are listed in the chart below.

MGT

Fa0/0-192.168.77.33

S1/0-198.0.18.6

S0/0-192.168.27.9

S0/1-192.168.50.21

ENG

Fa0/0-192.168.77.34

Fa1/0-192.168.12.17

Fa0/1-192.168.12.1

Parts1

Fa0/0-192.168.12.33

Fa0/1-192.168.12.49

S0/0-192.168.27.10

Parts2

Fa0/0-192.168.12.65

Fa0/1-192.168.12.81

S0/1-192.168.50.22

Answer: A

Question No. 8

In an HSRP failover environment, which two tasks must you perform on the preferred active router so that it

always assumes the active role when it comes up? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, C

Question No. 9

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called? (Choose two.)

Answer: A, B

Question No. 10

Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?

Answer: D

Question No. 11

Which Cisco IOS feature can you use to dynamically identify a connectivity problem between a Cisco device

and a designated endpoint?

Answer: B

Question No. 12

Which utility do you use to view IP traffic that is switched through the router to locate errors in a TCP stream?

Answer: B

Cisco routers provide a basic method of viewing IP traffic switched through the router called packet debugging.

Packet debugging enables a user to determine whether traffic is travelling along an expected path in the

network or whether there are errors in a particular TCP stream. Although in some cases packet debugging can

eliminate the need for a packet analyzer, it should not be considered a replacement for this important tool.

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1907.html

Question No. 13

Which two types of cloud services may require you to alter the design of your network infrastructure? (Choose

two.)

Answer: B, C

Question No. 14

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)

Answer: A, C, E

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Question No. 1

A customer has implemented a N+1 high availability plan in a multistory building. All APs on odd numbered floors are set as primary to WLC-A and all APs on even numbered floors are set as primary to WLC-8. Which two problems are likely to arise from this design? (Choose two)

Answer: A, C

Question No. 2

A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)

Answer: A, D, E, F

Question No. 3

A FlexConnect remote office deployment is using five 2702i APs indoors and two 1532i APs outdoors. When a code upgrade is performed and FlexConnect Smart AP Image Upgrade is leveraged, but no FlexConnect Master AP has been configured. How many image transfers between the WLC and APs will occur?

Answer: D

Question No. 4

A wireless engineer must design a wireless mesh network for the courtyard at a local university to support a large number of students. Which description of how the engineer designs the mesh network to provide additional capacity is true?

Answer: C

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